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Question Bank No: 1

1. In Plant biotechnology PEG is used in

a)		Cell culture preparation
b)		Protoplast fusion
c)		Protoplast isolation
d)		Hardening

2. First artifical gene was synthesized by

a)		Nirenberg
b)		Mendel
c)		Morgan
d)		Khorana

3. Dolly the first cloned mammual was produced by

a)		Parthenogenesis
b)		Artifical fertilization
c)		Replacement of Zygote nucleus by somatic nucleus
d)		invitro fertilization

4. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of

a)		Pig
b)		Fish
c)		Mice
d)		Cow

5. Cry IIAb and Cry I Ab produce toxins that control

a)		Tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively
b)		Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
c)		Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
d)		Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively

6. A genetically enginered micro organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

a)		Trichoderma
b)		Pseudomonas
c)		Bascillus
d)		Xanthomonas

7. Somatic hybridization is achieved through

a)		Grafting
b)		Protoplast fusion
c)		Conjugation
d)		rDNA technology

8. Plant tissue culture technique is a redefined method of

a)		Hybridization
b)		Vegetative propagation
c)		Asexual reproduction
d)		Selection

9. Preserving germplasm in frozen state is

a)		Cryopreservation
b)		Cold Storage
c)		Insitu preservation
d)		Vernalisation

10. Plasmids are vectors for gene cloning because they

a)		Self replicate in bacterial cells
b)		can be multiplied in culture
c)		replicate freely outside bacterial cells
d)		can be multiplied in laboratories using enzymes

11. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in commercial production of

a)		Melatonin
b)		Testosterone
c)		Human insulin
d)		Thyroxine

12. A set standats used to regulate own or community activity in realtion to biological world is

a)		Biopotency
b)		Biopiracy
c)		Biowar
d)		Bioethics

13. Biopatents are

a)		Right to use invention
b)		Right to use biological entities
c)		Right to use products
d)		Right to use process

14. Genome is

a)		Genes on nuclear DNA
b)		Nuclear DNA and Mitochondrial DNA
c)		Nuclear DNA and chloroplast DNA
d)		Nuclear, Mitochondrial and Chloroplast DNA

15. which of the following enzyme is used to covalently bond foreign DNA to a vector plasmid?

a)		DNA polymerase
b)		Restriction endonuclease
c)		DNA ligase
d)		DNA helicase

16. What is the normal role of restriction endonuclease in bacterial cells?

a)		To degrade the bacterial chromosome into small pieces during replication
b)		To degrade invading phage DNA
c)		To produce RNA primers for replication
d)		All the above

17. Which of the following is not commonly used as vector?

a)		Artificial chromosome
b)		Cosmid
c)		Fungi
d)		Plasmid

18. Bacterial cells protect their own DNA from degradation by restriction endonucleases by

a)		methylating the DNA at the sites that the enzyme recognises
b)		deleting all recognition sites from the genome
c)		not producing any restriction endonuclease
d)		having anti restriction endonuclease

19. All of the following are used in PCR except

a)		Taq Polymerase
b)		Restriction enzyme
c)		Oligonucleotide primers
d)		Deoxynucleoside triphosphates

20. The name of the first clone calf produced in USA in 1998

a)		Mr. Jefferson
b)		Bonny
c)		Bell
d)		Holly

21. Transgenic tomato is characterized by

a)		Fruits with rich Vitamin A content
b)		High tolerance to herbicide
c)		High resistance to virus and insects
d)		Increased yield of fruits

22. A naturally occurring plasmid is

a)		PBR 322
b)		col $E_{1}$
c)		Ti Plasmid
d)		all the above

23. The scientist awarded with Nobel prize for producing first rDNA was

a)		Smith
b)		H.G. Khorana
c)		Nathans
d)		Paulberg

24. Dr. hargobind Khorana has been awarded Nobel prize for research on

a)		Oral contracetives
b)		Hormones
c)		Genetic code
d)		Immunology

25. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are]

a)		Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
b)		Escherichia and Agrobacterium
c)		Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
d)		Rhizobium and Diplococcus

26. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river , its BOD will

a)		increase
b)		decrease
c)		sharply decrease
d)		remain unchanged

27. Which pair of the following is an example for sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?

a)		Oxygen and Nitrogen
b)		Phosphorus and Sulphur
c)		Phosphorous and Nitrogen
d)		Phosphorus and Carbondioxide

28. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/ $m^{2} / year) in a grassland ecosystem ?$

a)		secondary production
b)		Teritary production
c)		Gross production
d)		net production

29. What is BOD?

a)		Amount of oxygen utilised by organisms in water
b)		Amount of oxygen utilised by microorganisms for biological oxidation
c)		Total amount of oxygen present in water
d)		All the above

30. Which of the following is a partial root parasite?

a)		Sandal wood
b)		Mistletoe
c)		Orobanche
d)		Ganoderma

31. What parameters are used for tiger census in our country's national parks and sanctuaries?

a)		Pug marks only
b)		Pug marks and faecal pellets
c)		Faecal pellets only
d)		Actual head counts

32. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over

a)		India
b)		Europe
c)		Antartica
d)		Africa

33. The major contributors of green house gases to atmosphere is

a)		Russia
b)		USA
c)		Germany
d)		Brazil

34. The most common indicator organism that represents polluted water is

a)		E.coli
b)		P.typhii
c)		C. vibrio
d)		Entamoeba

35. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because it inhibits

a)		calcium ATPase
b)		Mangnesium ATPase
c)		calmodulin
d)		carbonic anhydrase

36. Which of the following would necessarily decrese the density of a population in a given habitat?

a)		Natality $>$ mortality
b)		Immigration $>$ Emigration
c)		Mortality and emigration
d)		Natality and Immigration

37. If a population of 150 paramoecium present in a pool increases to 1150 after an hour, what would be the growth rate of population?

a)		10/hr
b)		100/hr
c)		150/hr
d)		1000/hr

38. Ecotone is

a)		a polluted area
b)		The bottom of a lake
c)		A zone of transition between two communities
d)		A zone of developing community

39. Highest DDT deposition shall occur in

a)		Phytoplankton
b)		Sea gull/Birds
c)		Crab
d)		Eel

40. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level

a)		Above 30db
b)		Above 80 db
c)		Above 100 db
d)		Above 120 db

41. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhausts is

a)		Mercury
b)		Cadmium
c)		Lead
d)		Copper

42. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was

a)		Methyl isocyanate
b)		Potassium isothiocyanate
c)		Sodium isothiocyanate
d)		Ethyl isothiocyanate

43. Energy transfer from one tropic level to the other in a food chain is

a)		1 $%$
b)		2 $%$
c)		10 $%$
d)		20 $%$

44. Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants growing in

a)		Saline soils
b)		Sandy soils
c)		marshy places and salt lakes
d)		dryland regions

45. Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because

a)		Excessive carbondioxide is added to water
b)		it gives off bad smell
c)		it removes off a bad smell
d)		it increase competition among fishes for dissolved oxygen

46. In a population unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as

a)		Biotic potential
b)		Fertility
c)		Carrying capacity
d)		birth rate

47. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest, then what will be the tropic level of it?

a)		First tropical level ( $T_{1}$ )
b)		Second tropical level ( $T_{2}$ )
c)		Third tropical level ( $T_{3}$ )
d)		Fourth tropical level ( $T_{4}$ )

48. In which of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?

a)		Shrub land
b)		Forest
c)		Desert
d)		Grassland

49. Which one of the following is not used for the construction of ecological pyramids?

a)		number of individuals
b)		fresh weight
c)		dry weight
d)		rate of energy flow

50. Niche Overlap indicates

a)		Two different parasites on the same host
b)		Sharing of one or more resources between the two species
c)		Mutualism between two species
d)		active co-operation between two species